The Eighth Circuit, in a 7-4 decision, overturned the District Court's ruling, claiming that it was "objectively true that human life begins at conception." Apparently, the Eighth Circuit has been staffed with scientists, not judges. I mean...that has to be the case, or else how could seven of them be so sure about the truth of this matter when even the scientific world has yet to reach a solid consensus? Or perhaps, what is much more likely, the judges let their personal beliefs guide their voting in this specific instance.
I write this not to criticize the opinion or even the Eighth Circuit's thinly-veiled activism. What I have a problem with is the fact that not a single conservative commentator has called these judges out on their activist ruling. I speak specifically about all these religious conservatives and even United States Congressmen, who so vocally condemn "liberal activist judges" whenever they feel that those judges have abused their inherent Constitutional powers. Their main claim, of course, is that judges may only interpret the laws created by the legislature - they may not simply create new laws and rights whenever their intuition calls for it. Thus, when in Roe v. Wade the Supreme Court held that the Constitution implied a right to privacy, conservatives were outraged and immediately condemned the Court for its activism. They claimed, and still claim, that the Court was not interpreting the Constitution, but merely creating a new right out of thin air.
Interesting, now, how the tides have turned in the present case. Conservative judges on the Eighth Circuit have now "interpreted" the First Amendment in a way that allows a State to force a doctor to say words which he may not believe (or worse, scientifically disagree with). That's funny...I don't see those words anywhere in the Amendment. I guess the judges must have made that up.
Where are the activism cries? Where are those conservatives who were so concerned about the proper role of the judiciary? What ridiculous hypocrisy. This case reveals the true nature of those who employ the term "judicial activism." It's merely a code word, used by people who disagree with the substantive outcome of any specific case. It is a pejorative insult, slung by those who could not convince a majority of judges to feel the same way they do. And when those judges do agree with them, but employ the same judicial method that those people once abhorred? Not a problem...because they sided with us this time.
Some may say I'm being too partisan on this issue - that I'm not being fair to conservatives because liberals too only like judges who side with them on their issues. But that's not the point. Find me a liberal commentator, professor, scholar or politician who uses the term "activist judge" to describe judges they disagree with. There aren't any (or at least, so few in comparison to conservatives). The "activist judge" slander campaign was mainly a conservative attack on liberal judges. Thus, I believe I have every right to call out those same conservatives when their silence goes seemingly unnoticed by others. That silence speaks volumes about the legitimacy of the "activist judge" critique. It was, and still is, nothing more than a hypocritical slander campaign, leveled against judges who simply disagreed with conservative ideologies.
~JSK
________________________________________
A few points, both in concurrence and contention.
On Hypocrisy
I looked into this case a bit, not being aware of it prior, and in my limited understanding of it, I have to agree with your point about hypocrisy. The justification for this being Constitutional was essentially that because the bill defined person, "an individual living member of the species Homo sapiens, including the unborn human being during the entire embryonic and fetal ages from fertilization to full gestation" that it was therefore acceptable to mandate this disclosure. This rather tautological argument does appear to be rather "activist" in nature. However, I do disagree with JSK's implied reasoning for why this is in violation of the 1st Amendment. He states that this is faulty at least in part because the state can force doctors to say something that, he may not believe (or worse, scientifically disagree with)." But since when is a personal belief in the truth of a statement a condition of of being allowed to remove oneself from mandatory disclosure laws? Drug companies must disclose "likely" side effects of their drugs, police officers must reiterate Miranda Rights, individuals can not distribute campaign literature unless they disclose from what group funding originated; none of these groups are waived from being forced into this speech because they personally do not agree of believe what is being said. The reality is, the arguments on both sides of this have motives that have less to do with any fundamental right and more to do with a certain policy that they agree in. I'm agreeing with your accusation of hypocrisy, but that charge more then goes around to almost everyone now.
The reality is that neither major party or the mainstream right or left actually believes in fundamentally protecting the Constitution. Social conservatives, as you put it, who base much of the claim for the overturning of Roe in steadfast beliefs in adhering to the Constitution and therefore interpreting it through a originalist viewpoint, are often the same people who are in agreement with expanding the size and role of the welfare state, all of which was declared unconstitutional under an orginalist interpretation. Likewise, those on the Left who have been outraged by recent actions on habius corpus, domestic spying, etc, and argue the their outrage is based in destroying the Constitution are the same people who don't seem to have any problem with Hilary Clinton's proposal, for example, of enacting a foreclosure moratorium, which is a clear violation of contractual rights and obligations as well as the Constitutional ban on post facto laws. Where is the outrage here, if the outrage were indeed grounded in the Constitution? The reality is, that very few people who claim that any given policy should be restricted based on Constitutional grounds actually fundamentaly believe that. It is just a means of appealing to authority in order to achieve the policy goal one wishes.
For example, both of our Presidential candidates have essentially stated they don't actually believe in adhering to the constitution. Obama, in a 2001 radio interview, before he was under the scrutiny of a Presidential campaign, was talking about the Supreme court, the civil rights movement and how it failed to redistribute wealth. He had this to say:
...the Supreme Court never ventured into the issues of redistribution of wealth, and of more basic issues such as political and economic justice in society. To that extent, as radical as I think people try to characterize the Warren Court, it wasn't that radical. It didn't break free from the essential constraints that were placed by the Founding Fathers in the Constitution...Essentially he is admitting that the Founders intended to place constraints on the powers of the Federal government, specifically in this case the ability to redistribute wealth. He is then criticizing the Court for not "breaking free." Therefore, he has no intention of actually abiding by an objective Constitution, but rather having it "evolve". The entire interview can be listed to here.
And that hasn't shifted and one of the, I think, tragedies of the civil rights movement was... [the]tendency to lose track of the political and community organizing and activities on the ground that are able to put together the actual coalition of powers through which you bring about redistributive change.
Similarly McCain, in reference to his campaign finance laws stated:
"I would rather have a clean government than one where quote First Amendment rights are being respected, that has become corrupt. If I had my choice, I'd rather have the clean government."So he does not fundamentally believe in individual rights either. Those rights are only protected in so far as the government does not see a more important national cause. But if that was the intent of the Founders, why have a Constitution in the first place? Why not just allow democracy to do whatever the majority deems fit?
On the Idea of Activist Judges
Though I agree with you on the hypocrisy point, my dissent is largely in how you seem to suggest that the notion of an "Activist Judiciary" is only a concocted one and the reality is that there are just differing "judicial philosophies." Though there may be hypocrisy from many of the messengers, that does not change the message, and this is a more then legitimate claim.
It is true that as the Founders would say, "reasonable men can disagree," but we have not been adhering to the notion of a constitutional republic for 70 plus years now. FDR began the dismantling of the Constitution and it has continued ever since. Many of his programs were deemed unconstitutional and therefore he tried to stack the court. He famously stated, "We have been relegated to the horse-and-buggy definition of interstate commerce." So he is saying then that there is an "old" definition of the Constitution. That therefore implies, there is a "new" version. This ultimately means he had no intention of abiding by Constitutional law as had been determined by years of precedent, but rather wanted the Court to become activist. Even the term "Progressive" has its roots in an understanding that we had moved beyond the need for the original meaning of the Constitution and the role of government, There was an acknolegment that advocates of such policies were not adhering to the Constitution as had been in the past.
FDR eventually got what he wanted over the years as he appointed judges that shared his desire. They overturned the recent precedent created when the court originally struck down his Railroad Retirement Act, National Industrial Recovery Act, and Agricultural Adjustment Act. How could this possibly not be "activist" when juts a few years prior, the courts had struck down any expansive definition of the interstate commerce clause? Now we have bastardized the clause to allow the Federal government to get involved in virtually everything and this is the legal backing behind the modern welfare state.
Likewise, Roe v Wade was similarly "activist." Roe's reasoning essentially derived from the following chain of logic.
1. No unreasonable search and seizure as well as no quartering of troops implies that there is a Constitutional right to privacy or at least in ones personal home.
2. Under this notion of this implied right to privacy, state contraceptive bans were deemed unconstitutional in Griswold v. Connecticut.
(So I'm in general agreement to this point)
3.Because Griswold had to do with reproduction, the right to privacy likewise extends to the notion of abortion.
This is a huge very week stretch to get to this last point. The argument for why privacy applied with contraceptives was because this act only occures in the privacy of the home (which is more directly implied in the Constitution) between intimate consenting individuals. Furthermore, and importantly, in order to enforce this law, it would require search and seizure within the home and investigation of sexual behavior. Abortion does not fit into this framework at all. However closely the two may be linked in purpose, they are worlds apart in terms of privacy. Abortions do not take place in the privacy of ones personal home, preventing them does not require investigation of private sexual behavior, and they involve persons(doctors) other than sexual partners. Furthermore, a commercial transaction occurs. If this broad of a definition of privacy where applied in general, then that means that all laws that states enact to regulate commerce, restrict use of drugs and other substances, control what can be manufactured, and mandate things ranging from required smoke detectors to barring the use of led paint in your home are all unconstitutional because they violate the principal of privacy. Obviously there are very few people, and even fewer who argue pasionatly about protecting abortion, that would argue for this.
The other component was citing the 14th amendment. A state law infringing on a fundamental right is reviewed under a rigorous "strict scrutiny" standard to detemine of the Federal Government has the power to overturn a state. The right must be "deeply rooted in the history and traditions" of the American people or "implicit in the concept of ordered liberty" at the time of the Amendment's enactment. But most states had laws restricting abortion at the time, an no one in the late 19th century was arguing abortion was "deeply rooted in history and traditions." So this argument is not only factually incorrect, but absurd.
Casey v Planned Parenthood more or less acknowledged how pathetic this reasoning was.
We do not need to say whether each of us, had we been Members of the Court when the valuation of the state interest came before it as an original matter, would have concluded, as the Roe Court did, that its weight is insufficient to justify a ban on abortions prior to viability even when it is subject to certain exceptions. The matter is not before us in the first instance, and, coming as it does after nearly 20 years of litigation in Roe's wake we are satisfied that the immediate question is not the soundness of Roe's resolution of the issue, but the precedential force that must be accorded to its holding.So essentially the Court is admitting that the reasoning behind Roe was faulty (or at least is unwilling to reaffirm its reasoning), but it was only upholding its core principals because there was now precedent. But the only reason why there was precedent was because of faulty reasoning!
So I will wait and see what variations of precedent JSK is able to put together to argue for the legitimacy of these two examples I give. However, even if such a thing can be done, it can only be done so because we have had over 70 year are such lose interpretations of the Constitution, where there is virtually no restricts on the power of the state, and individual rights can be created and destroyed at the whim of a justice, so that a "reasonable" individual can now construct justification for basically anything. We are far gone from the days when we actually lived under constitutional government.
-EJB
____________________________________________________________________
On Hypocrisy
...specific intent originalism often leads to absurd conclusions.
If the Constitution's meaning is defined only by the drafters'
specific views, the Constitution could not govern the modern world.
Congress' power under article I to raise an Army and Navy could not
include the Air Force because that was not the framers' specific
intent.
Thus I agree that “progressive” means realizing the need to move beyond traditional definitions. This need directly coincides with the actual changing nature of American culture and technology. EJB seems to believe that if a Court overrules precedent, it is being “activist.” This is not the case for if it were so, it would mean that reasonable men could not change their minds on any opinion. That one definition of “interstate commerce” took hold and replaced an older one does not evidence “judicial activism.” It merely recognizes the changing landscape of the American economy.
I know I cannot convince those of you who agree with EJB. But I will, however, suggest to you a fantastic book entitled "The Myth of Judicial Activism." It is a wonderfully coherent look at what is meant by the phrase and also a fantastic empirical study of past cases. If it does not convince you of the utter emptiness of the phrase "judicial activist," then I guess we're stuck with a worthless term for the indefinite future...
~JSK
|